College Admission Certification Certification PMHNP Sample Questions Reliable
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NEW QUESTION # 274
Which of the following is most likely to be a systemic effect of hypokalemia?
- A. Tingling of lips and fingers
- B. Intestinal cramping
- C. Polyuria
- D. Restlessness
Answer: C
Explanation:
Polyuria is a sign of hypokalemia, while the other signs are typically associated with hyperkalemia.
Effects of hypokalemia:
* Impaired carbohydrate metabolism
* Impaired renal function
* Polyuria
* Polydipsia
* Skeletal muscle weakness
* Smooth muscle atony
* Cardiac dysrhythmias
* Paralysis and respiratory arrest
Effects of hyperkalemia:
* Muscle weakness
* Paralysis
* Tingling of lips and fingers
* Restlessness
* Intestinal cramping
* Diarrhea
* Electrocardiogram changes
NEW QUESTION # 275
The physical exam of a schizophrenic patient may reveal which of the following eye findings?
- A. Exophthalmos
- B. Astigmatism
- C. Abnormal smooth-pursuit eye movements
- D. Normal saccadic eye movements
Answer: C
Explanation:
Individuals with schizophrenia commonly have abnormal smooth-pursuit eye movements. Impairment in smooth-pursuit eye movements is considered a vulnerability marker for schizophrenia.
There is no notable connection between exophthalmos and astigmatism in schizophrenic patients. A schizophrenic patient is more likely to have abnormal saccadic eye movements.
NEW QUESTION # 276
The PMHNP works in a community mental health clinic and refers a patient with chronic mental illness for assertive community treatment (ACT). What services would the client most likely receive?
- A. ACT provides medication management services to patients with severe mental illness
- B. ACT provides long-term, intensive, community-based care for patients with severe mental illness
- C. ACT provides treatment to patients in a hospital setting when necessary
- D. ACT provides intermittent services to patients with severe mental illness
Answer: B
Explanation:
Assertive community treatment provides long-term, intensive, community-based care to patients with severe mental illness who have difficulty engaging in traditional mental health services. The model focuses on providing comprehensive, coordinated, and individualized services to support patients in their recovery and help them achieve their goals.
ACT teams typically consist of a variety of mental health professionals, including psychiatrists, nurses, social workers, and other mental health professionals, who work collaboratively to provide services to patients in their homes, workplaces, or other community settings. ACT is effective in reducing hospitalization, improving quality of life, and increasing social functioning for patients with severe mental illness.
NEW QUESTION # 277
Clinically significant gastrointestinal side effects of lithium therapy include which of the following?
- A. Mental cloudiness
- B. Nystagmus
- C. Fine hand tremors
- D. Nausea
Answer: D
Explanation:
Other gastrointestinal side effects include diarrhea, vomiting, cramps, and anorexia.
Fine hand tremors, mental cloudiness, and nystagmus are all side effects of the central nervous system, not the gastrointestinal system.
NEW QUESTION # 278
A PMHNP is conducting a mental status exam on a patient and asks them to explain the similarities between a car and a bicycle. What is the PMHNP most likely assessing in the patient's cognition?
- A. Concrete thinking
- B. Attention
- C. Abstract reasoning
- D. Memory
Answer: C
Explanation:
Abstract reasoning is the ability to think beyond the concrete and consider abstract concepts or ideas. It is often assessed in a mental status exam through questions that require the patient to compare or contrast two concepts, such as the similarities between a car and a bicycle. Patients with difficulties in abstract reasoning may have difficulty with problem-solving and decision-making and may have difficulty understanding abstract concepts or ideas.
NEW QUESTION # 279
A man has been involuntarily committed to an inpatient psychiatric unit for suicidal ideation with a plan. He admits to long-standing feelings of depression and hopelessness since the death of his wife last year. He has been prescribed antidepressant medication, which he is refusing to take.
Which of the following actions is appropriate?
- A. The patient has the right to refuse treatment even though he is involuntarily committed
- B. Petition the court for an extension of the involuntary commitment since the patient is not actively participating in treatment
- C. Meet with the patient and explain the rationale so that he will comply with treatment
- D. The patient is involuntarily committed and does not have the right to refuse treatment
Answer: A
Explanation:
Clients have the right to refuse treatment unless a legal process resulting in a mandatory court order for treatment has been obtained. The patient still retains his civil rights even though he has been involuntarily committed. The PMH-BC should meet with the patient and explain the situation to encourage compliance, but the patient retains the right to refuse treatment.
Petitioning for an extended stay is not the first course of action, as the patient does not currently appear suicidal, which would be necessary to make this decision.
NEW QUESTION # 280
Which of the following drug classifications is least associated with pronounced withdrawal symptoms?
- A. Alcohol
- B. SSRIs
- C. Opiates
- D. Benzodiazepines
Answer: B
Explanation:
SSRIs do not have pronounced withdrawal symptoms when compared to the other possible answers. Substances that have pronounced withdrawal symptoms include alcohol, benzodiazepines, and opiates.
NEW QUESTION # 281
When evaluating a patient for anxiety symptoms, a PMHNP assesses for the presence of cognitive distortions. Which of the following is an example of a cognitive distortion?
- A. Reporting that anxiety is creating performance issues at work
- B. Describing an event in exhausting and accurate detail
- C. Fortune-telling
- D. Reporting that a prescribed medication is not working
Answer: C
Explanation:
Fortune-telling, or jumping to conclusions, is a cognitive distortion where the individual takes a small piece of current evidence and projects and predicts an undesirable future outcome without any evidence-based reasoning for that outcome.
Describing an event in exhausting detail is not a distorted thought. A subjective belief that medication is not working is not a cognitive distortion. A patient reporting their anxiety is causing performance issues at work may be accurate and needs further exploration. For example, if the patient makes a minor error and is catastrophically forecasting being fired, that would be considered fortune-telling.
NEW QUESTION # 282
How do managed care organizations control healthcare costs?
- A. Exclude preexisting conditions
- B. Charge higher premiums than traditional insurers
- C. Bargain with medical practices for reduced rates on visits
- D. Enroll only those aged 18 and older
Answer: C
Explanation:
To control costs, managed care organizations attempt to do the following:
* Enroll employees by offering premiums that cost less than those of traditional insurers
* Decrease the number of emergency room visits
* Decrease the number of hospital stays
* Decrease a patient's length of stay in a hospital
* Bargain with medical practices for reduced rates on visits
NEW QUESTION # 283
A 29-year-old African American female was diagnosed with schizophrenia approximately three years ago. After many trials of antipsychotics, she was finally stabilized on haloperidol during the past six months. Three weeks ago, she began exhibiting pseudo-Parkinson's symptoms.
Which class of medications would be most appropriate for treating these side effects?
- A. Histamine 1 antagonist
- B. Alpha 1 adrenergic agonist
- C. Muscarinic 1 antagonist
- D. Cholinesterase inhibitor
Answer: C
Explanation:
Extrapyramidal symptoms are drug-induced side effects that affect motor functioning and muscle movement. Extrapyramidal symptoms are associated with a deficiency of dopamine and an excess of acetylcholine in the nigrostriatal pathway. A common type of extrapyramidal symptom is called pseudo-Parkinson's, which presents with a shuffling gait, motor slowing, mask-like facial expression, tremors, and muscle rigidity.
Muscarinic 1 antagonist medications reduce the effects of excess acetylcholine and relieve extrapyramidal symptoms.
NEW QUESTION # 284
Immunizations are important disease prevention interventions. While working at a community health clinic, a PMHNP sees a young female patient with anxiety and overwhelming stress related to homelessness and pregnancy. The young woman recently found housing and obtained medical care. She requests getting current with her vaccinations such as MMR and varicell a.
What would be the appropriate action for the PMHNP to take?
- A. Administer the vaccinations as requested
- B. Order lab work for current titers
- C. Refer the patient to an OB-GYN for care and to receive these vaccinations during her pregnancy
- D. Instruct the patient that neither of these vaccinations is appropriate during pregnancy
Answer: D
Explanation:
Neither of these vaccinations is approved during pregnancy.
Referring the patient to an OB-GYN is appropriate but does not address the vaccination issue. The most appropriate and timely response to the patient's request is to provide instructions that these vaccinations are not approved during pregnancy and to refer the patient to an OB-GYN. The vaccinations can be scheduled for after delivery.
NEW QUESTION # 285
Which statement accurately defines universal coverage?
- A. When all employers offer health insurance benefits to their employees
- B. When the entire employed population has health insurance coverage
- C. When the entire population has health insurance coverage
- D. When all persons younger than 18 years old have health insurance coverage
Answer: C
Explanation:
Universal coverage is achieved when the entire population has health insurance coverage. Universal coverage does not describe coverage that is limited or offered to a specific subgroup.
NEW QUESTION # 286
During the initial assessment for risk factors for an individual seeking mental health treatment, a PMHNP notes that the patient has a stressful occupation and poor nutrition. Which of the following risk factors should be documented?
- A. Biological, social, and psychological
- B. Psychological and biological
- C. Biological and social
- D. Social and psychological
Answer: C
Explanation:
Risk factors make it more likely that a person will develop a disorder and can be biological, social, or psychological. This individual has a social risk factor with a stressful occupation and a biological risk factor with poor nutrition.
A psychological risk factor could be a poor self-concept or an external locus of control.
NEW QUESTION # 287
What characterizes Cluster B personality disorders?
- A. Odd behaviors
- B. Asocial attributes
- C. Anxious traits
- D. Dramatic and affective instability
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cluster A personality disorder characteristics are described as odd, unusual, eccentric, and asocial.
Cluster C personality disorder characteristics are described as anxious.
NEW QUESTION # 288
Which of the following is an example of combined structural and functional imaging currently mainly used in research?
- A. Functional imaging
- B. Computed tomography
- C. Fluorine magnetic spectroscopy
- D. Magnetic resonance imaging
Answer: C
Explanation:
Fluorine magnetic spectroscopy is one of the newest imaging attempts to examine structure in connection with function and is mainly used in research.
CT, MRI, and functional imaging tests such as EEG and PET scans are currently used to examine either structure or function and are widely used in clinical settings.
NEW QUESTION # 289
What is kindling in the context of mental health, and how is it related to the recurrence of mood disorders?
- A. A process by which recurrent episodes of depression become more severe and longer-lasting over time
- B. A process by which exposure to a triggering event leads to the onset of a mood disorder, even after the event is removed
- C. A process by which a single traumatic event triggers the development of a mood disorder
- D. A process by which repeated episodes of mood disorder lead to greater susceptibility to future episodes
Answer: D
Explanation:
Kindling refers to the phenomenon in which repeated episodes of mood disorder, particularly bipolar disorder, lead to an increased risk of future episodes, and the episodes become more severe over time. This is thought to be due to changes in the brain's neural pathways that occur with each episode, making it easier for subsequent episodes to occur. This is why early and effective treatment of mood disorders is so important to prevent kindling and reduce the risk of future episodes.
A single traumatic event triggering the development of a mood disorder is not an example of kindling, and exposure to a triggering event leading to the onset of a mood disorder is more characteristic of post-traumatic stress disorder. Recurrent episodes of depression becoming more severe and longer-lasting is not an example of kindling but rather the cause of untreated or poorly treated depression.
NEW QUESTION # 290
Which of the following would be an exam finding in someone with generalized anxiety disorder?
- A. Sedation
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Subjective complaints of shakiness
- D. Decreased respiratory rate
Answer: C
Explanation:
Physical signs of generalized anxiety disorder include muscle tension, generalized muscle aches and soreness, tremors, twitching, subjective complaints of shakiness, shortness of breath, autonomic hyperarousal signs, tachycardia, increased respiratory rates, dizziness and numbness, fatigue, muscle tension, and insomnia.
NEW QUESTION # 291
Systemic effects of hyponatremia include which of the following?
- A. Fever
- B. Thirst
- C. Restlessness
- D. Confusion
Answer: D
Explanation:
Systemic effects of hypernatremia include restlessness, thirst, and fever. Confusion is more commonly associated with hyponatremia.
NEW QUESTION # 292
A patient with major depressive disorder has been experiencing feelings of hopelessness and a lack of motivation to engage in self-care activities since the recent death of their spouse. Which of the following theories can best explain this phenomenon?
- A. Cognitive dissonance theory
- B. Social learning theory
- C. Learned helplessness theory
- D. Self-determination theory
Answer: C
Explanation:
Learned helplessness theory suggests that people who experience repeated negative events, especially events that they cannot control, may learn to feel helpless and powerless to improve their situation. This theory has been used to explain depression, as people who experience chronic stress or trauma may develop a sense of hopelessness and a lack of motivation to engage in self-care activities.
Social learning theory suggests that behavior is learned through observation and reinforcement. Self-determination theory emphasizes the importance of autonomy, competence, and relatedness in motivating behavior. Cognitive dissonance theory suggests that people experience discomfort when their attitudes or beliefs are inconsistent with their actions.
NEW QUESTION # 293
A person who is proficient in the use of software, hardware selection, and computer maintenance possesses which skill?
- A. Information competency
- B. Information literacy
- C. Computer competency
- D. Biomedical engineering
Answer: C
Explanation:
Computer competency is the ability to demonstrate proficiency with software applications, such as Microsoft Word, Excel, and PowerPoint, and knowledge of computer terminology, hardware selection, and simple maintenance functions.
Biomedical engineering is developing new devices and technologies to improve human health. While those skilled in biomedical engineering often have computer competency, these terms are not related.
Information literacy involves recognizing when information is needed and being able to efficiently locate and use it. Information competency is often used as a synonym for information literacy.
NEW QUESTION # 294
A 13-year-old patient with a diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder (ASD) is experiencing increased self-injury and aggression toward others at home and school. Their parent also reports witnessing rapid mood swings. Which of the following is the most appropriate psychotropic medication for the described target symptoms in ASD?
- A. Guanfacine
- B. Adderall
- C. Risperidone
- D. Lithium
Answer: C
Explanation:
Risperidone is authorized for ASD patients aged 5-16. Target symptoms include irritability, self-injury, aggression toward others, mood swings, and tantrums. Adderall, lithium, and guanfacine are not the best medications for treating ASD in this patient.
NEW QUESTION # 295
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Ace College Admission PMHNP Certification with Actual Questions Apr 26, 2026 Updated: https://examsforall.actual4dump.com/College-Admission/PMHNP-actualtests-dumps.html